语文小学期末试卷

初三年级第一学期期末考试英语试卷

初三年级第一学期期末考试英语试卷 完成时间:_______ 分钟 得分:_______ 第一部分:听力理解(共20分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does t

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初三年级第一学期期末考试英语试卷


完成时间:_______ 分钟 得分:_______




第一部分:听力理解(共20分)

第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the man want to do?

A. Borrow a book. B. Return a book. C. Buy a book.

2. How will the woman go to the museum?

A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.

3. What time is it now?

A. 7:30. B. —8:00. C. 8:30.

4. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In a restaurant. B. In a library. C. In a shop.

5. What is the weather like today?

A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.


第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6至第8题。

6. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers?

A. Teacher and student. B. Classmates. C. Brother and sister.

7. What are they mainly talking about?

A. A school project. B. Weekend plans. C. A sports meeting.

8. When will they meet on Saturday?

A. At 9:00 a.m. B. At 10:00 a.m. C. At 2:00 p.m.


听第7段材料,回答第9至第11题。

9. Why does the man call the woman?

A. To invite her to a party. B. To ask for some advice. C. To cancel an appointment.

10. What is the woman’s suggestion?

A. To buy a new shirt. B. To wear a tie. C. To be on time.

11. What can we learn about the man?

A. He is nervous. B. He is confident. C. He is experienced.


听第8段材料,回答第12至第15题。

12. What is the speaker mainly talking about?

A. The history of the Internet. B. The importance of online safety. C. How to use social media.

13. What should you do with personal information online?

A. Share it with friends only. B. Keep it private. C. Post it publicly.

14. What is mentioned as a danger of meeting online friends in person?

A. Wasting time. B. Possible danger. C. Losing money.

15. What is the speaker’s final advice?

A. Never use the Internet. B. Be careful and think twice. C. Only trust people you know.



第二部分:语言知识运用(共30分)

第一节:单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

16. — Would you like ______ cup of coffee?

— No, thanks. I’ve had enough.

A. other B. another C. the other D. others

17. The movie is so interesting that it is worth ______ twice.

A. watch B. to watch C. watching D. watched

18. If it ______ tomorrow, we will go for a picnic.

A. doesn’t rain B. didn’t rain C. won’t rain D. isn’t raining

19. — ______ have you been in this school?

— Since 2020.

A. How long B. How often C. How soon D. How far

20. The teacher asked the students ______.

A. what they were doing B. what are they doing C. what they are doing D. what were they doing

21. Not only my parents but also my brother ______ interested in Chinese history.

A. is B. are C. have D. has

22. — Must I finish the report today?

— No, you ______. You can hand it in tomorrow.

A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. shouldn’t D. can’t

23. The book ______ I bought yesterday is very useful for my study.

A. who B. which C. whom D. whose

24. By the time we arrived, the meeting ______ for ten minutes.

A. had begun B. has begun C. had been on D. has been on

25. It’s polite to keep your voice down ______ public places.

A. on B. at C. in D. for

26. — I’m sorry for being late.

— ______. But please come earlier next time.

A. That’s right B. You’re welcome C. Never mind D. My pleasure

27. The more you practice, ______ you will be at speaking English.

A. the better B. better C. the best D. best

28. — Do you know ______?

— Yes. It’s made of cotton.

A. what the shirt is made of B. where the shirt is made C. when the shirt was made D. how the shirt is made

29. The government is taking action ______ the air pollution.

A. reduce B. reducing C. to reduce D. reduced

30. — I have great difficulty in learning math.

— ______. Maybe I can help you.

A. Good luck B. No way C. Cheer up D. It doesn’t matter


第二节:完形填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从31至40各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

One day, a little boy was walking along the beach. There were thousands of starfish(海星)washed up on the sand. The boy began to pick them up and throw them back into the sea.

A man came along and said, “Why are you doing this? There are so many starfish. You ___31___ make a difference.”

The boy picked up another starfish, threw it into the water, and said, “It made a difference for that one.”

The man was silent for a moment. Then he ___32___ picking up starfish and throwing them back too.

This story teaches us that even small actions can be ___33___. We may think our efforts are too ___34___ to matter, but every little bit helps. In our daily life, we can do many things to make the world a better place. For example, we can ___35___ rubbish, help an elderly person cross the street, or simply smile at someone who looks sad.

Sometimes, we feel ___36___ because the problems seem too big. But remember the story of the boy and the starfish. We don’t have to solve ___37___ problems at once. We can start with small steps. If everyone does a little, together we can achieve a lot.

So next time you see something that needs to be done, don’t ___38___ that it’s not your job or that you can’t do much. Just take action. Your small kindness might ___39___ someone’s day or even save a life, just like the starfish.

Let’s be like the boy on the beach. Let’s make a difference, ___40___ one starfish at a time.


31. A. mustn’t

B. needn’t

C. can’t

D. shouldn’t

32. A. stopped

B. enjoyed

C. started

D. finished

33. A. meaningful

B. dangerous

C. difficult

D. expensive

34. A. big

B. small

C. easy

D. hard

35. A. produce

B. burn

C. collect

D. buy

36. A. hopeful

B. excited

C. helpless

D. angry

37. A. all

B. some

C. no

D. few

38. A. think

B. agree

C. promise

D. forget

39. A. break

B. waste

C. brighten

D. forget

40. A. at least

B. at most

C. at first

D. at last



第三部分:阅读理解(共30分)

第一节(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Many people think that success is only for those with talent or those who grow up in the right family, and others believe that success mostly comes down to luck. I’m not going to say luck, talent, and circumstances don’t come into play because they do. However, there is something which is much more important: hard work.

Every successful person has put in a lot of effort. For example, the famous scientist Thomas Edison failed thousands of times before he invented the light bulb. He once said, “Genius is one percent inspiration and ninety-nine percent perspiration(汗水).”

In fact, hard work can often make up for a lack of talent. If you are not as talented as others, you can still succeed through hard work. The key is to set a goal and work towards it step by step. Don’t be afraid of failure. Learn from your mistakes and keep trying.

So, if you want to succeed, stop making excuses. Start working hard today!

41. What does the writer think is the most important for success?

A. Talent. B. Luck. C. Hard work. D. Family background.

42. Why does the writer mention Thomas Edison?

A. To show he was a genius. B. To prove hard work leads to success. C. To introduce his invention. D. To explain what inspiration is.

43. What does the underlined phrase “make up for” probably mean?

A. Look for. B. Take the place of. C. Prepare for. D. Catch up with.

44. What is the writer’s advice at the end of the passage?

A. To find more excuses. B. To wait for good luck. C. To start working hard. D. To depend on talent.


B

Tea is an important part of Chinese culture. It is not only a drink but also a symbol of hospitality(好客)and respect. Serving tea to guests is a common practice in China.

There are many different types of Chinese tea, such as green tea, black tea, oolong tea, and white tea. Each type has its own unique taste and health benefits. For example, green tea is believed to help with weight loss and improve heart health.

The way of making tea is also an art. It involves steps like warming the teapot, adding tea leaves, pouring hot water, and serving the tea. In a traditional Chinese tea ceremony, every movement has a special meaning.

Drinking tea is a good way to relax and socialize. Many Chinese people enjoy chatting with friends over a cup of tea. Tea houses are popular places where people can meet, talk, and enjoy different kinds of tea.

45. What is tea a symbol of in Chinese culture?

A. Wealth and power. B. Hospitality and respect. C. Sadness and loneliness. D. Speed and efficiency.

46. Which type of tea is mentioned as helpful for weight loss?

A. Black tea. B. Oolong tea. C. Green tea. D. White tea.

47. What does the passage say about the way of making tea?

A. It is very simple. B. It is an art with special steps. C. It is only done by professionals. D. It is not important.

48. Where do Chinese people often go to enjoy tea with friends?

A. Coffee shops. B. Tea houses. C. Libraries. D. Shopping malls.


C

Have you ever heard of “upcycling”? It is different from recycling. Recycling usually means breaking down materials to make new products, which often uses a lot of energy. Upcycling, on the other hand, means turning old or useless things into something new and useful without breaking them down completely.

For example, you can turn an old glass bottle into a beautiful vase, or use worn-out jeans to make a fashionable bag. Upcycling is creative and environmentally friendly. It reduces waste and saves resources.

Many people enjoy upcycling as a hobby. It’s not only good for the environment but also fun. You can find many upcycling ideas online. Schools sometimes hold upcycling competitions to encourage students to be creative and care for the environment.

So, next time before you throw something away, think about whether you can upcycle it. You might be surprised at what you can create!

49. What is the main difference between upcycling and recycling?

A. Upcycling is more expensive. B. Upcycling doesn’t break materials down completely. C. Recycling is more creative. D. Recycling is not environmentally friendly.

50. Which of the following is an example of upcycling?

A. Throwing away a plastic bottle. B. Sending old newspapers to a recycling center. C. Making a bag from old jeans. D. Buying a new vase from a store.

51. Why is upcycling good for the environment?

A. It uses a lot of energy. B. It produces more waste. C. It reduces waste and saves resources. D. It encourages people to buy new things.

52. What is the writer’s purpose in writing this passage?

A. To introduce a new hobby. B. To encourage people to try upcycling. C. To compare different ways of waste treatment. D. To explain the process of recycling.


第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

How to Improve Your Reading Skills

Reading is an important skill for learning English. Here are some tips to help you improve.

___53___ Don’t try to understand every single word. Try to get the general idea of the text first.

___54___ When you find a new word, try to guess its meaning from the context(上下文). Look at the words around it and the whole sentence.

___55___ The more you read, the better you will become. Try to read something in English every day, even if it’s just for 15 minutes.

___56___ Choose books or articles that are not too difficult for you. If there are too many new words, you might get discouraged.

___57___ After reading, try to retell the story or summarize the main points in your own words. This helps you check your understanding.

A. Read regularly. B. Read quickly at first. C. Guess the meaning of new words. D. Read aloud to practice pronunciation. E. Choose materials that are right for your level. F. Check your understanding after reading. G. Look up every new word in the dictionary.



第四部分:书面表达(共20分)

第一节:句子翻译(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据所给中文意思完成句子,每空一词。


58. 我们应当学会如何与别人友好相处。

We should learn how to ______ ______ with others.

59. 为了保护环境,我们最好骑自行车上学。

______ ______ the environment, we’d better go to school by bike.

60. 这个房间足够大,能容纳二十个人。

The room is ______ ______ to hold twenty people.

61. 自从他搬到这个城市,就交了很多朋友。

He ______ ______ many friends since he moved to this city.


62. 你能告诉我会议什么时候开始吗?

Can you tell me ______ the meeting ______?


第二节:作文(满分10分)

假设你是李华,你的英国笔友Mike来信说他对中国的传统节日很感兴趣,并请你介绍一个你最喜欢的中国节日。请你给他写一封回信。

内容包括:

1. 节日名称及时间;


2. 节日的庆祝活动;


3. 你喜欢这个节日的原因。

注意:

1. 词数80左右;


2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;


3. 信的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。

Dear Mike,

I’m glad to hear that you are interested in Chinese traditional festivals.

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

Yours,


Li Hua

参考答案及评分标准


第一部分:听力理解(共20分)

第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)


题号

1

2

3

4

5

答案

B

A

C

A

B

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)


题号

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

答案

B

A

B

B

C

A

B

B

B

B

听力材料(原文)

(此处为听力原文,供教师参考。考试时由录音播放。)

第一节

1. W: Can I help you?


M: Yes, I’d like to return this book, please.

2. M: How are you going to the museum?


W: I think I’ll take the No. 5 bus.

3. W: Hurry up! The movie starts at 8:30.


M: Don’t worry. We still have half an hour.

4. M: What would you like to order?


W: I’d like a bowl of noodles and some vegetables.

5. M: It’s raining heavily outside.


W: Yes, we’d better stay at home.

第二节

Text 6


M: Hi, Lisa. Have you finished the science project?


W: Not yet, Tom. I’m still working on it. How about you?


M: I’ve almost finished. Do you need any help?


W: That would be great. Can we meet this weekend to discuss it?


M: Sure. How about Saturday morning at 10?


W: Perfect. See you then.

Text 7


W: Hello?


M: Hi, Jane. It’s Peter. I need your advice.


W: What’s up?


M: I have a job interview tomorrow, and I’m really nervous. What should I do?


W: First, relax. Be confident. And remember to be on time.


M: OK. What should I wear?


W: A clean shirt and trousers are fine. You don’t need a tie for this one.


M: Thanks, Jane. I feel a bit better now.

Text 8


Good morning, everyone. Today I’d like to talk about online safety. The Internet is useful, but we must be careful. First, never share personal information like your address or phone number online. Second, be careful about meeting online friends in person. It can be dangerous. Always tell your parents and meet in a public place. Finally, think twice before you post anything. Once it’s online, it’s hard to remove. Remember, safety first!

第二部分:语言知识运用(共30分)

第一节:单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)


16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

B

C

A

A

A

A

B

B

C

C

C

A

A

C

C

第二节:完形填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)


31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

C

C

A

B

C

C

A

A

C

A

第三部分:阅读理解(共30分)

第一节(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)


41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

C

B

B

C

B

C

B

B

B

C

C

B

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)


53

54

55

56

57

B

C

A

E

F

第四部分:书面表达(共20分)

第一节:句子翻译(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

58. get along/on


59. To protect


60. big/large enough


61. has made


62. when; begins/will begin

评分标准:每空1分,拼写、语法错误不得分。

第二节:作文(满分10分)

一、评分原则:

1. 本题总分为10分,按5个档次给分。


2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。


3. 词数少于60或多于100的,从总分中减去1分。


4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。


5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。

二、内容要点:

1. 节日名称及时间(2分)


2. 节日的庆祝活动(3分)


3. 喜欢的原因(3分)


4. 书信格式、连贯与语言表达(2分)

三、各档次的给分范围和要求:

第五档(9-10分):完全完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有内容要点;应用了较多的语法结构和词汇;语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力;有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第四档(7-8分):完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容;应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求;语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致;应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。

第三档(5-6分):基本完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容;应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求;有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解;应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第二档(3-4分):未恰当完成试题规定的任务。漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容;语法结构单调、词汇项目有限;有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解;较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。

第一档(1-2分):未完成试题规定的任务。明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能与未理解试题有关;语法结构单调、词汇项目有限;较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解;缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。

0分:未能传达给读者任何信息;内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

四、参考范文:

Dear Mike,

I’m glad to hear that you are interested in Chinese traditional festivals. I’d like to introduce the Spring Festival, which is the most important one in China. It usually falls in January or February.

Before the festival, people clean their houses and buy new clothes. On New Year’s Eve, families get together for a big dinner. People also set off fireworks and watch the Spring Festival Gala on TV. During the festival, children get lucky money in red envelopes, and people visit relatives and friends to give best wishes.

I like the Spring Festival best because it brings family members together. The happy atmosphere and delicious food make me feel warm and joyful. I hope you can come to experience it someday!

Yours,


Li Hua

初三年级期末考试英语试卷命题多维细目表(学段初中 学科英语)



题号

题型

分值

预估难度

考查知识内容

对应学业质量要求

学科核心素养

关键能力

情境来源

1-5

听力选择题

5

日常对话理解(意图、方式、时间、地点、天气)

能听懂发音清晰、语速较慢的简短话语,获取关键信息。

语言能力

信息获取与理解能力

日常生活

6-15

听力选择题

15

较长对话及独白理解(关系、主题、细节、建议、主旨)

能听懂有关熟悉话题的语段,识别不同意图与态度。

语言能力、思维品质

信息整合与推理判断能力

学校生活、社会交往、安全常识

16-30

单项选择

15

冠词、非谓语动词、状语从句、疑问词、宾语从句、主谓一致、情态动词、定语从句、时态、介词、交际用语、比较等级、被动语态、不定式、情景反应

能在具体语境中运用语法知识和词汇进行理解和表达。

语言能力

语法与词汇运用能力

综合语境

31-40

完形填空

15

语篇理解、词义辨析、逻辑推理、固定搭配

能理解语篇的整体意义和主要信息,根据上下文推断意义。

语言能力、思维品质、文化意识

语篇理解与逻辑推理能力

寓言故事(蕴含哲理)

41-44

阅读理解

8

主旨大意、细节理解、词义猜测、作者意图

能读懂常见体裁的简短书面材料,提取关键信息。

语言能力、学习能力

信息定位与理解能力

励志主题(成功要素)

45-48

阅读理解

8

细节理解、信息匹配

能读懂介绍文化现象的短文,获取具体信息。

语言能力、文化意识

信息检索能力

中国文化(茶文化)

49-52

阅读理解

8

概念区分、细节理解、因果判断、写作目的

能理解说明性文本,区分概念,判断作者意图。

语言能力、思维品质

分析比较与归纳能力

环保与创新(升级再造)

53-57

阅读七选五

10

语篇结构、逻辑衔接、主旨概括

能理解语篇的基本结构以及上下文逻辑关系。

语言能力、学习能力

语篇结构与逻辑衔接能力

学习策略(阅读技巧)

58-62

句子翻译

10

固定搭配、不定式作目的状语、enough用法、现在完成时、宾语从句时态

能根据所给中文提示,运用正确的语法和词汇完成句子。

语言能力

双语转换与准确表达能力

综合语境

作文

书面表达

10

书信格式、内容组织、语言运用、连贯表达

能根据提示简要介绍事物,表达个人观点,语言基本准确、连贯。

语言能力、文化意识

综合语言运用与创造性表达能力

文化交流(介绍中国节日)

设计意图说明:本试卷严格依据义务教育英语课程标准(2022年版)及初中毕业年级学业要求命制。试卷结构合理,覆盖听力、语言知识运用、阅读理解和书面表达四大板块,全面考查学生的英语综合运用能力。试题难度梯度分明,兼顾基础性与选拔性。内容选取贴近学生生活实际和社会热点,注重弘扬中华优秀传统文化(如茶文化、春节),渗透环保理念和创新思维(如升级再造),旨在考查语言能力的同时,促进学生思维品质、文化意识和学习能力的发展。命题多维细目表清晰呈现了每道题目的考查目标与核心素养指向,为教学评价与反馈提供依据。