人教版七年级英语下册期中测试卷（Unit 1 - Unit 5）

（满分：120分 考试时间：120分钟）

姓名：__________ 学号：__________ 班级：__________

完成时间：_______ 分钟 得分：_______

注意事项：

1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、学号、班级填写在试卷指定位置。

2. 请用黑色签字笔或钢笔作答，答案写在答题卡或试卷的相应位置。

3. 听力部分开始时，请先将答案标在试卷上，录音结束后，你有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。

4. 保持卷面整洁，书写工整。

第一部分：听力（共两节，满分20分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What club does the boy want to join?

A. The music club. B. The chess club. C. The swimming club.

2. What time does Mike usually go to bed?

A. At 9:30 p.m. B. At 10:00 p.m. C. At 10:30 p.m.

3. How does the girl go to school?

A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot.

4. What animal does Peter like?

A. Elephants. B. Pandas. C. Giraffes.

5. Where are the two speakers?

A. In a library. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does Lucy think of math?

A. It's easy. B. It's fun. C. It's difficult.

7. Who is good at math?

A. Lucy. B. Mary. C. Lucy's brother.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. What does Tom want to do this Saturday?

A. Play basketball. B. Go to the zoo. C. Visit his grandparents.

9. Why can't Kate go with Tom?

A. She has to study. B. She is not feeling well. C. She has to help her mom.

10. What time will they meet if Kate can go?

A. At 9:00 a.m. B. At 10:00 a.m. C. At 2:00 p.m.

听第8段材料，回答第11至15题。

11. What is Steve's favorite subject?

A. History. B. Science. C. P.E.

12. How many classes does Steve have on Wednesday?

A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven.

13. What does Steve usually do after school?

A. Plays soccer. B. Does his homework. C. Goes to the art club.

14. Who is Steve's history teacher?

A. Mr. Green. B. Mrs. Brown. C. Miss White.

15. What does Steve think of his school life?

A. Busy but interesting. B. Boring and difficult. C. Easy and relaxing.

第二部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节：单项填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

16. — Can you play ________ guitar?

— No, but I can play ________ chess.

A. the; the B. the; / C. /; the D. /; /

17. My sister usually gets up ________ 6:30 ________ the morning.

A. at; on B. at; in C. on; in D. in; at

18. — ________ is it from your home to school?

— It's about two kilometers.

A. How long B. How far C. How much D. How many

19. Don't ________ late for class. It's a rule.

A. is B. are C. be D. to be

20. The elephants are ________ great danger. We must save them.

A. at B. on C. in D. for

21. — What ________ rules!

— Yeah, we can't listen to music in the classroom.

A. interesting B. relaxing C. strict D. funny

22. Scott has an interesting ________. He works at a radio station.

A. job B. work C. dream D. habit

23. — Does your father go to work ________ bus?

— No, he ________ a bike.

A. by; rides B. on; rides C. by; by D. on; by

24. It takes me half an hour ________ my homework every day.

A. do B. doing C. to do D. does

25. Please be quiet. The baby ________.

A. sleeps B. is sleeping C. sleep D. to sleep

26. — ________ are the pandas from?

— They are from China.

A. What B. When C. Where D. Why

27. Look! The girl ________ a red dress is my cousin.

A. on B. in C. at D. with

28. — Let's go to the zoo this Sunday.

— ________.

A. You're welcome B. That sounds good C. Here you are D. Thank you

29. I like dogs because they are ________ and cute.

A. scary B. lazy C. friendly D. dirty

30. — ________?

— He is a teacher.

A. What does your father do B. How is your father

C. Where is your father D. What is your father like

第二节：完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Hello, everyone! My name is Li Ming. I'm a student in No. 5 Middle School. I want to tell you about my school day.

I usually 31 at 6:30 a.m. Then I brush my teeth and wash my face. After that, I have a quick breakfast. I 32 home at about 7:10 and go to school by bike. It takes 33 about 15 minutes to get to school.

Classes start at 8:00. We have four classes in the morning. My favorite subject is English 34 I think it's very useful. The English teacher, Miss Wang, is very kind and her classes are interesting. We have lunch at school at 12:00. The food in the dining hall is 35.

In the afternoon, we have two classes. School 36 at 4:30 p.m. After school, I often play basketball with my friends 37 an hour. It's good for our health. Then I go home and do my homework. I usually 38 my homework at 7:00 p.m.

After dinner, I sometimes watch TV or read books. I go to bed at 9:30. I need about nine 39 sleep every night. I think my school life is busy 40 happy.

31. A. get up B. go to bed C. have breakfast D. go home

32. A. leave B. get C. arrive D. come

33. A. him B. her C. me D. them

34. A. but B. so C. because D. or

35. A. dirty B. delicious C. terrible D. expensive

36. A. finishes B. starts C. has D. does

37. A. at B. for C. in D. on

38. A. make B. finish C. forget D. remember

39. A. minutes' B. hours' C. days' D. weeks'

40. A. and B. but C. or D. so

第三部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Jane is a middle school student. She is very busy from Monday to Friday. She gets up at six o'clock every morning. Then she runs for half an hour. After that, she takes a shower and has breakfast. She usually has milk and bread for breakfast. She goes to school at seven thirty. Her first class starts at eight. She has four classes in the morning and three in the afternoon. She has lunch at school. Her favorite subject is music because she thinks it's relaxing. After school, she goes to the music club. She can play the piano very well. She gets home at about six o'clock. After dinner, she does her homework. She goes to bed at ten.

41. What does Jane do at six in the morning?

A. She has breakfast. B. She takes a shower. C. She gets up. D. She goes to school.

42. How many classes does Jane have a day?

A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven.

43. Why does Jane like music?

A. Because it's useful. B. Because it's interesting.

C. Because it's relaxing. D. Because it's easy.

44. What can Jane do in the music club?

A. Sing songs. B. Play the guitar. C. Play the piano. D. Dance.

45. What time does Jane go to bed?

A. At 9:00 p.m. B. At 9:30 p.m. C. At 10:00 p.m. D. At 10:30 p.m.

B

Tom and Mike are good friends. They are in the same class. They both like sports. Tom likes playing basketball and Mike likes playing soccer. But they have different eating habits.

For breakfast, Tom likes eggs, milk and an apple. Mike likes hamburgers and orange juice. For lunch, Tom has rice, chicken and vegetables at school. Mike has noodles, beef and a banana. For dinner, Tom eats at home. He has fish, soup and fruit. Mike often eats out with his parents. He likes pizza and ice-cream.

Tom thinks Mike eats too much junk food (垃圾食品). It's not good for his health. Mike thinks Tom's food is healthy but not very delicious. What do you think of their eating habits?

46. What sport does Mike like?

A. Basketball. B. Soccer. C. Baseball. D. Tennis.

47. What does Tom have for breakfast?

A. Hamburgers and orange juice. B. Eggs, milk and an apple.

C. Noodles and a banana. D. Rice and chicken.

48. Where does Tom have lunch?

A. At home. B. In a restaurant. C. At school. D. We don't know.

49. The underlined word "delicious" means ________ in Chinese.

A. 健康的 B. 昂贵的 C. 美味的 D. 简单的

50. What can we learn from the passage?

A. Tom and Mike are brothers. B. Mike's eating habits are healthy.

C. Tom often eats out for dinner. D. Tom thinks Mike should eat healthy food.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

There are many rules in our school. 51 We have to wear school uniforms from Monday to Thursday. On Friday, we can wear our own clothes. 52 We can't eat food in the classroom. We have to eat in the dining hall.

53 We can't listen to music or play games in class. We have to be quiet when the teacher is speaking. After class, we can't run in the hallways. 54

Some students think the rules are too strict. 55 They help us to be good students. What do you think of our school rules?

A. It's dangerous.

B. But I think they are useful.

C. We have to follow them.

D. We can eat and drink in class.

E. In class, we have to listen to the teacher carefully.

F. For example, we can't arrive late for class.

G. We have to keep our classroom clean.

第四部分：词汇运用（共两节，满分15分）

第一节：单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

根据句意及首字母或汉语提示，写出单词的正确形式。

56. My mother is a doctor. She works in a h________.

57. The lion is very s________. Don't go near it.

58. It's ________ (重要的) to have a good breakfast.

59. There are sixty ________ (分钟) in an hour.

60. My grandparents live in a ________ (村庄). It's very quiet there.

第二节：综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Dear Tom,

Thanks for your e-mail. I want to tell you about my life here. I usually get up at 6:30 on school days. I have breakfast at 7:00. Then I go to school by bike. It's about 2 kilometers from my home 61 school, so it takes me about 10 minutes.

I have many 62 (friend) at school. We often play sports together after school. My favorite sport 63 (be) basketball. I think it's exciting. I 64 (real) like my English teacher, too. She is from America. Her classes are fun.

I have a dog. 65 (it) name is Lucky. It is smart and cute. It can walk on two legs. It's like a family member to 66 (I).

What about your life? 67 do you get to school? What's your favorite subject? Please write 68 (tell) me about your school.

Yours,

Li Hua

61. ________ 62. ________ 63. ________ 64. ________ 65. ________

66. ________ 67. ________ 68. ________

第五部分：任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。

My name is Kate. I'm thirteen years old. I live with my parents and my little brother in a small town. I go to Green Middle School. I like my school because the teachers are nice and the students are friendly.

I have a lot of things to do from Monday to Friday. I get up at 6:40 a.m. I have to make my bed and clean my room before breakfast. After breakfast, I walk to school. It takes about 20 minutes. I never go to school by bus because I think walking is good exercise.

I have lunch at school. After school, I have to do my homework first. Then I can watch TV for half an hour. I have to help my mom make dinner on Tuesday and Thursday. After dinner, I usually read books or play with my brother. I have to go to bed before 9:30 p.m.

On weekends, I don't have to get up early. I can play with my friends or go to the library. Sometimes my family goes to visit my grandparents. I love my weekends.

69. How old is Kate?

70. How does Kate go to school?

71. Why does Kate like her school? (Give one reason)

72. What does Kate have to do on Tuesday and Thursday after school?

73. Can Kate get up late on weekends?

第六部分：书面表达（满分15分）

假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Peter想了解你最好的朋友的情况。请根据以下提示，用英语写一封电子邮件向他介绍你的好朋友王磊。

提示：

1. 年龄、外貌、性格；

2. 上学方式、作息习惯；

3. 爱好、特长；

4. 喜欢的动物及原因。

要求：

1. 包含所有提示内容，可适当发挥；

2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；

3. 词数60左右。邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。

Dear Peter,

How are you? You want to know about my best friend. Now let me tell you something about him.

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

What about your best friend? Please write to me soon.

Yours,

Li Hua

参考答案及评分标准

听力材料

第一节

1. W: What club do you want to join, Bob?

M: I want to join the chess club. I think it's interesting.

2. W: Mike, what time do you usually go to bed?

M: I usually go to bed at ten o'clock.

3. M: How do you go to school, Jane?

W: I usually walk to school because my home is not far from school.

4. W: What animals do you like, Peter?

M: I like pandas. They are cute and they are from China.

5. W: Can I help you?

M: Yes. I'd like a bowl of noodles, please.

W: OK. Wait a minute.

第二节

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

M: Hi, Lucy. Is that your math book?

W: Yes, it is, Tom.

M: Do you like math?

W: No, I don't. I think it's difficult. What about you?

M: I like it. It's easy for me. My sister Mary is good at math, too.

W: Really? That's great.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

M: Hi, Kate. What are you doing this Saturday?

W: Nothing much, Tom. What's up?

M: Do you want to go to the zoo with me?

W: The zoo? That sounds fun. But I have to help my mom clean the house.

M: Oh, what a pity! What about Sunday?

W: Sunday is OK.

M: Great! Let's meet at the zoo gate at 10:00 a.m.

W: OK. See you then.

听第8段材料，回答第11至15题。

Hello, my name is Steve. I'm a student at Sunshine Middle School. My favorite subject is history. I think it's interesting. I can learn a lot from it. I have six classes every day from Monday to Friday. On Wednesday, I have P.E., my second favorite subject. After school, I usually play soccer with my friends. It's relaxing. My history teacher is Mr. Green. He is very funny. I like his classes very much. My school life is busy because I have a lot of classes and homework, but it's also interesting. I love my school.

第一部分：听力（1-15题）

1-5: B B C B B 6-10: C B B C B 11-15: A B A A A

评分标准：第1-5小题每题1分；第6-15小题每题1.5分。与答案不符不得分。

第二部分：英语知识运用

第一节：单项填空（16-30题）

16-20: B B B C C 21-25: C A A C B 26-30: C B B C A

评分标准：每题1分。与答案不符不得分。

第二节：完形填空（31-40题）

31-35: A A C C B 36-40: A B B B B

评分标准：每题1.5分。与答案不符不得分。

第三部分：阅读理解

第一节（41-50题）

41-45: C D C C C 46-50: B B C C D

评分标准：每题2分。与答案不符不得分。

第二节（51-55题）

51-55: C G E A B

评分标准：每题2分。与答案不符不得分。

第四部分：词汇运用

第一节：单词拼写（56-60题）

 56. hospital    57. scary    58. important    59. minutes    60. village

评分标准：每题1分。单词拼写完全正确得1分，有任何错误（包括大小写）得0分。

第二节：综合填空（61-68题）

 61. to    62. friends    63. is    64. really    65. Its    66. me    67. How    68. to tell

评分标准：每题1分。单词形式完全正确得1分，有任何错误得0分。

第五部分：任务型阅读（69-73题）

69. She is thirteen (years old).

 70. She walks to school. / On foot.

 71. Because the teachers are nice (and the students are friendly). / Because the students are friendly (and the teachers are nice).

 72. She has to help her mom make dinner.

 73. Yes, she can.

评分标准：每题2分。答案意思正确、表述清晰即可得分，允许有不同的表达方式。拼写或语法错误每处扣0.5分，扣完该小题2分为止。

第六部分：书面表达（15分）

参考范文：

 Dear Peter,

 How are you? You want to know about my best friend. Now let me tell you something about him.

 His name is Wang Lei. He is 13 years old. He is tall and has short black hair. He is very friendly and funny. He usually goes to school by bike. He gets up early and never goes to bed late. He likes playing basketball and he is good at it. He can also play the guitar very well. His favorite animals are dogs because he thinks they are smart and they can help people.

 What about your best friend? Please write to me soon.

 Yours,

 Li Hua

评分标准：

 第一档（13-15分）：完全完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有内容要点；应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇；用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚；没有或仅有少量语言错误。

 第二档（10-12分）：完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有内容要点；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求；句子较通顺、表达较清楚；有少量语言错误。

 第三档（7-9分）：基本完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖主要内容；应用的语法结构和词汇基本正确；句子基本通顺，有一些语言错误。

 第四档（4-6分）：未恰当完成试题规定的任务。漏掉或未描述清楚主要内容；语法结构单调、词汇有限；有较多语言错误，影响理解。

 第五档（0-3分）：未完成试题规定的任务。明显遗漏主要内容；语法结构和词汇使用错误很多；所写内容难以理解。

 注：词数少于40或多于80，从总分中减去2分。书写潦草、卷面不清，酌情扣1-2分。